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1) The induction agent of choice in day care anesthesia is:

a) Sevoflurane
b) Ketamine
c) Propofol
d) Methohexitone

2)Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is:
a) Ketamine
b) Etomidate
c) Propofol
d) Thiopentone

3) A 38yr old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hrs. Which on of the following induction agents is preferred:
a) Thiopentone sodium
b) Ketamine
c) Diazepam
d) Propofol

4) A 64 yr old hypertensive obese female was undergoing surgery for fracture femur under general anesthesia. Intraoperatively her end tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable cause?
a) Fat embolism
b) Hypovolemia
c) Bronchospasm
d) Myocardial infarction

5) At the end of a balanced anesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
a) Pancuronium
b) Gallamine
c) Atracurium
d) Vecuronium

6) Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve:
a) Musculocutaneous
b) Ulnar
c) Radial
d) Median

7) In all of the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated except:
a) Patient refusal
b) Coagulopathy
c) Severe hypovolemia
d) Preexisting neurological deficits

8) A 25 yrs old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anaesthesia with spontnaeous respiration. The most efficient anaesthetic circuit is:
a) Mapleson A
b) Mapleson B
c) Mapleson C
d) Mapleson D

9) A 5 yr old boy suffering from Duchene muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anesthetic would be:
a) Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O, and halothane for maintenance
b) Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O; and oxygen for maintenance
c) Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O; halothane for maintenance
d) Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O; oxygen for maintenance

10) During rapid sequence induction of anesthesia:
a) Sellick's maneuver is not required
b) Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
c) Suxamethonium is contraindicated
d) Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation

11) An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
a) Black cylinder with white shoulders
b) Black cylinder with grey shoulders
c) White cylinder with black shoulders
d) Grey cylinder with white shoulders

12) The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of identification is:
a) Cementum apposition
b) Transparency of root
c) Attrition
d)Root resorption

13) The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except:
a) Burns
b) Heat stroke
c) Pontine hemorrhage
d) Septicemia

14) Postmortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of:
a) Drowning in a well
b) Drowning in a fast flowing river
c) Postmortem submersion
d) Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool

15) Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath. The witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC?
a) 190
b) 191
c) 192
d) 193

16) In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to:
a) Lead
b) Arsenic
c) Mercury
d) Copper

17) All of the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane person except:
a) McNaughtens's rule
b) Durrham's rule
c) Curren's rule
d) Rule of nines

18) A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be:
a) Musculotoxic
b) Vasculotoxic
c) Cardiotoxic
d) Neurotoxic

19) Mummification refers to:
a) Hardening of muscles after death
b) Colliquative putrifaction
c) Saponification of subcutaneous fat
d) Dessication of a dead body

20) A 15 yr old healthy boy  with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg, trunk, everytime within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of:
a) Localized immune-complex deposition
b) Cell mediated hypersensitivity
c) Localized anaphylaxis
d) Release of complement C3b

21) An 8 yr old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice in such a patient is:
a) Systemic ampicillin
b) Topical betamethasone
c) Systemic prednisolone
d) Topical permethrin

22) An eleven yr old boy is having Tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
Oral griseofulvin therapy
b) Topical griseofulvin therapy
c) Shaving of scalp
d) Selenium sulphide shampoo

23) Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by:
a) Luminol spray
b) Infrared photography
c) Ultraviolet light
d) Magnifying lens

24) The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is:
a) Gram's stain
b) Potassium hydroxide mount
c) Tissue smear
d) Wood's lamp examination

25) A 5 yr old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypo pigmented macules with fine scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
a) Pityriasis versicolor
b) Indeterminate leprosy.
c) Pityriasis alba
d) Acrofacial vitiligo

26) A 40 yr old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis, The most probable diagnosis is:
a) Pemphigus vulgaris
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Bullous lupus erythematosus
d)  Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

27) Acantholysis is characterstic of:
a) Pemphigus vulgaris.
b) Pemphigoid .
c) Erythema multiforme
d) Dermatitis herpitiformis

28) A 60 yr old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is:
a) Thymoma
b) Lung cancer
c) Hodgkin's lymphoma
d) Superior Venacaval Obstruction

29) One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% concentration by:
a) 0.1 gm%
b) 1 gm%
c) 2 gm%
d) 2.2 gm%

30) All of the following conditions may predispose to Pulmonary embolism except:
a) Protein S deficiency
b) Malignancy
c) Obesity
d) Progesterone therapy

31) An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except:
a) Small VSD
b) Papillary muscle dysfunction
c) Tricuspid regurgitation
d) Aortic Stenosis

32) All of the following may occur in Noonan's syndrome except:
a) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
b) Cryptoorchidism
c) Infertility in females
d) Autosomal dominant transmission

33) Serum total LDH level will not be raised in:
a) Muscle crush injury
b) Stroke
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Hemolysis

34) A married middle aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The karyotype as given in the examination paper was that of:
a) Klinefelter's syndrome
b) Klinefelter's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Patau's syndrome

35) The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true except:
a) The source of infection is mainly clinical cases
b) The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year
c) Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended
d) The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 yrs of age

36) The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
a) N. gonorrhoeae & Herpes genitalis
b) C. trachomatis & Herpes genitalis
c) N. gonorrhoeae & Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Syphilis & Chancroid

37) All of the following are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except:
a) Clostridium tetani
b) Bartonella bacilliformis
c) Plasmodium falciparum
d) Babesia microti

38) All of the following are the ECG features of severe hyperkalemia except:
a) Peaked T waves
b) Presence of U waves
c) Sine wave pattern
d) Loss of P waves

39) The correct sequence of cell cycle is:
a) G0-G1-S-G2-M
b) G0-G1-G2-S-M
c) G0-M-G2-S-G1
d) G0-G1-S-M-G2

40) Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
a) Japanese B virus
b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Human immunodeficiency virus
d) Rubeola virus

41) Raised serum level of lipoprotein-a is a predictor of:
a) Cirrhosis of liver
b) Rheumatic arthritis.
c) Atherosclerosis
d) CA-Cervix

42) Which of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion:
a) Cirrhosis
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Congestive heart failure
d) Bronchogenic carcinoma

43)  A 60 yrs old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaire's disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it:
a) From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the airplane
b) From a chronic carrier in the convention centre
c) From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room
d) By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention

44) Hypocalcaemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
a) Numbness and tingling of circumoral region
b) Hyperactive tendon reflexes
c) Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG
d) Carpo pedal spasm

45) All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except:
a) Most of potassium is intracellular
b) Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in the skeletal muscle
c) Intracellular potassium is released into extra cellular space in response to severe injury
d) Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extra cellular to intracellular fluid compartment

46) Following are features of corticospinal involvement except:
a) Cog-wheel rigidity
b) Spasticity
c) Plantar extensor response
d) Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes

47) All of the following statements about NK cells are true, except:
a) They are derived from large granular cells
b) They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells
c) They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells
d) They express IgG Fc receptors

48) Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except:
a) Hyperosmolarity
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Acidosis
d) Hyponatremia

49) Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion:
a) Aortic valve
b) Tricuspid valve
c) Pulmonary valve
d) Mitral valve

50) A 40 yr old male had undergone splenectomy 20 yrs ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of:
a) Dohle bodies
b) Hypersegmented neutrophils
c) Spherocytes
d) Howell-jolly bodies



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